4 Mock JIPMAT

Quantitative Ability

01

The sum of all three-digit numbers divisible by 13 is:

02

The HCF of 1,001 and 385 is:

03

The unit’s digit of \(7^{100}\) is:

04

30% of 200 is the same as 25% of which number?

05

A 60 kg salt solution contains 25% salt. If 20 kg of water evaporates, the percentage of salt in the remaining solution is:

06

The selling price of 8 articles equals the cost price of 10 articles. The profit percentage is:

07

A retailer announces two successive discounts of 20% and 15%. The single equivalent discount is:

08

A sum doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. The number of years in which it will triple at the same rate is:

09

The compound interest on ₹5,000 at 8% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually, is:

10

If \(A:B = 3:5\) and \(B:C = 2:7\), then \(A:B:C\) is:

11

A 60-litre mixture contains 20% alcohol. How many litres of pure alcohol must be added to raise the alcohol content to 25%?

12

The average of 5 numbers is 30. If one of the numbers is excluded, the average of the remaining four numbers drops to 28. The excluded number is:

13

The average age of a class of 30 students is 12 years. When the teacher’s age is added the average becomes 13 years. The teacher’s age is:

14

A 20-litre mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1. How much water must be added so that the new ratio becomes 1 : 1?

15

A train 150 m long crosses a bridge 250 m long in 16 seconds. The speed of the train (in km/h) is:

16

Two trains, 80 m and 120 m long, run in the same direction at 60 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. The time taken by the faster train to cross the slower train completely is:

17

A boat covers 30 km downstream in 2 hours and 20 km upstream in 2 hours. The speed of the stream (in km/h) is:

18

A can finish a piece of work in 18 days and B in 12 days. They work together for 4 days and then A leaves. The number of days B alone takes to finish the remaining work is:

19

Pipe A can fill a tank in 8 hours, Pipe B in 12 hours, and Pipe C can empty it in 24 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, the tank fills in:

20

A committee of 5 is to be formed from 5 men and 4 women such that the committee contains a majority of women. The number of ways this can be done is:

21

The total number of arrangements of the letters of the word MATHEMATICS in which all the vowels come together is:

22

A bag contains 5 white, 4 black and 3 red balls. Three balls are drawn at random. The probability that all three are of the same colour is:

23

Two unbiased dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that the sum of the numbers on the dice is greater than 8 is:

24

In a survey, 70% of respondents read newspaper A, 50% read newspaper B and 30% read both. The percentage who read neither is:

25

The cost of 4 pencils and 6 erasers is ₹52, while the cost of 6 pencils and 3 erasers is ₹54. The cost of one pencil and one eraser together is:

26

Three years ago, a father was four times as old as his son. Five years from now he will be twice as old as his son. The son’s present age (in years) is:

27

If \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are the roots of \(x^{2} - 4x + 1 = 0\), then \(\alpha^{3} + \beta^{3}\) equals:

28

The values of \(k\) for which the equation \(x^{2} + (k+1)x + 4 = 0\) has equal roots are:

29

Two angles of a triangle are in the ratio \(3 : 5\) and the third angle is 80°. The smallest angle of the triangle is:

30

The area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 12 cm and 18 cm long, with a perpendicular distance of 8 cm between them, is:

31

A sphere of radius 9 cm is melted and recast into smaller spheres each of radius 3 cm. The number of smaller spheres formed is:

32

The diagonal of a rectangle is 25 cm and one side is 7 cm. The area of the rectangle (in cm²) is:

33

A square is inscribed in a circle of radius 10 cm. The area of the square is:

Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning

Instructions [34-37]:

The bar chart below shows the number of mobile phones sold by four stores — P, Q, R and S — in January and February. Use the chart to answer the questions that follow.

Grouped bar chart of January and February mobile phone sales for stores P, Q, R, S

34

The total number of phones sold by all four stores in January is:

35

Which store recorded the highest percentage growth in sales from January to February?

36

The average number of phones sold per store in February is:

37

The combined sales of stores P and Q over the two months put together is:

Instructions [38-41]:

The pie chart below shows the result of a survey of 1,500 respondents asked to name their preferred type of holiday destination. Use the chart to answer the questions that follow.

Pie chart of preferred holiday destinations — Beach 40%, Mountain 20%, City 15%, Forest 10%, Cruise 8%, Other 7%

38

The number of respondents who preferred a Beach holiday is:

39

The combined central angle (in degrees) of the Mountain and Forest slices is:

40

The difference between the most preferred and the least preferred destinations (in number of respondents) is:

41

If 20% of the Beach respondents change their preference to Mountain, the new total number choosing Mountain will be:

42

A is the brother of B. B is the mother of C. D is the father of A. How is D related to C?

43

Pointing to a woman, a man said, “She is the daughter of my mother’s only daughter.” How is the woman related to the man?

44

The total number of rectangles (of all sizes) in the following figure is:

45

A man walks 10 km east, then 5 km north, then 10 km east again, and finally 5 km north. His straight-line distance from his starting point is:

46

Statements: All A are B. All B are C.
Conclusions:
I. All A are C.
II. Some C are A.

Which of the conclusions follow?

47

Statements: Some apples are oranges. No orange is sweet.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are not sweet.
II. No apple is sweet.

Which of the conclusions follow?

48

Statements: All cats are animals. Some animals are friendly.
Conclusions:
I. Some cats are friendly.
II. Some friendly are cats.

Which of the conclusions follow?

49

In a certain code language, ROCK is written as SPDL. In the same code, FBU stands for:

50

In a coding language, CAT is written as 24 (sum of alphabet positions). The code for DOG is:

51

Find the next term in the series: \(1,\ 4,\ 10,\ 22,\ 46,\ ?\)

52

Four different positions of the same die are shown below. What number appears on the face opposite to 2?

53

Find the next term in the series: \(3,\ 6,\ 11,\ 18,\ 27,\ ?\)

54

Find the next letter in the series: \(B,\ D,\ G,\ K,\ P,\ ?\)

55

The mirror image of the figure given below is:

56

Five friends — A, B, C, D and E — sit in a row. B is to the immediate left of A. C sits at one end. A also sits at one end. D is to the immediate left of E. The friend at the middle of the row is:

57

The water image of the figure given below is:

58

At what time between 5 o’clock and 6 o’clock will the hour hand and minute hand of a clock be together (i.e. coincide)?

59

If today is Tuesday, what day of the week will it be after 100 days?

60

The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 9 : 30 is:

61

Question: What is the area of a rectangle?
Statement I: The perimeter of the rectangle is 40 cm.
Statement II: The diagonal of the rectangle is 14 cm.

62

Question: How old is A?
Statement I: A is twice as old as B.
Statement II: B was 12 years old four years ago.

63

Choose the pair that has a relationship similar to Doctor : Hospital.

64

Find the number that fits the analogy: \(9 : 81 :: 12 : ?\)

65

Find the odd one out: Bench, Sofa, Chair, Carpet

66

One term in the series below is incorrect. Identify it: \(2,\ 5,\ 10,\ 17,\ 26,\ 38\)

Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension

67

Choose the word that is most nearly the synonym of: INTREPID

68

Choose the word that is most nearly the synonym of: CANDID

69

Choose the word that is most nearly the synonym of: MUNDANE

70

Choose the word that is most nearly the synonym of: OBSOLETE

71

Choose the word that is most nearly the antonym of: PERMANENT

72

Choose the word that is most nearly the antonym of: PROHIBIT

73

Choose the word that is most nearly the antonym of: GENEROUS

74

Choose the word that is most nearly the antonym of: ARROGANT

75

Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error:

  1. She is one of / (B) the most intelligent / (C) student / (D) I have ever met.
76

Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error:

  1. The data is / (B) being analysed / (C) by the research / (D) team.
77

Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error:

  1. Between you and I / (B) there is / (C) a lot of / (D) common interest.
78

Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error:

  1. Either she or her sisters / (B) is / (C) responsible for the / (D) decision taken.
79

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of prepositions:

She has been working _________ the project _________ three years.

80

Choose the most appropriate word to fill the blank:

The teacher’s _________ on discipline is well known.

81

Choose the one-word substitute for: A person who walks in their sleep.

82

Choose the one-word substitute for: A form of government in which the wealthy hold political power.

83

Choose the one-word substitute for: A place where weapons and ammunition are stored.

84

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of prepositions:

She is good _________ painting but weak _________ mathematics.

85

Choose the meaning of the idiom: “to spill the beans”

86

Choose the meaning of the idiom: “to hit the nail on the head”

87

Rearrange the following sentences into a logical order:

P. The two countries have been engaged in border disputes for decades.
Q. Recent diplomatic talks have shown promising signs of de-escalation.
R. Yet implementing a lasting peace remains a complex challenge.
S. Both governments have signalled willingness to negotiate.

88

Rearrange the following sentences into a logical order:

P. The result has been described as one of the most remarkable scientific achievements of the century.
Q. For nearly fifty years, researchers had been searching for it.
R. Last week, scientists at CERN finally confirmed the discovery of the Higgs boson.
S. The particle, predicted by theory in the 1960s, proved elusive in experiments.

89

Rearrange the following sentences into a logical order:

P. Today, that vision has expanded across all professions.
Q. Vocational education was once viewed as a fallback for those who could not pursue traditional academic paths.
R. Modern programs combine technical training with entrepreneurial skills.
S. By the late 1990s, however, governments began recognising its strategic importance.

Instructions [90-95]:

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The renewed interest in space exploration is being driven not by government programs alone but by a flourishing private space industry. Companies like SpaceX, Blue Origin and Rocket Lab have dramatically reduced the cost of reaching orbit through reusable rocket technology, opening space access to scientific researchers, telecommunications providers and even tourists. Beyond commercial satellites, ambitious projects target permanent lunar bases, Mars settlements and asteroid mining. Critics, however, point out that space activities consume vast resources, generate orbital debris that endangers future missions, and divert attention from urgent terrestrial problems. Proponents counter that spinoff technologies from space programs — from GPS navigation to medical imaging — have repeatedly delivered terrestrial benefits exceeding the costs. The debate over priorities and risks is unlikely to be resolved soon. What is clear is that humanity’s relationship with the cosmos is being rewritten not by states alone but increasingly by entrepreneurs.

90

According to the passage, what has dramatically reduced the cost of reaching orbit?

91

Critics of space exploration argue that space activities:

92

The passage mentions which of the following as spinoff technologies from space programs?

93

The phrase “flourishing private space industry” suggests the industry is:

94

According to the passage, asteroid mining is:

95

The author’s overall view of space exploration can best be described as:

Instructions [96-100]:

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Sleep deprivation, once viewed as merely a personal inconvenience, is now recognised as a serious public health concern. Studies link chronic short sleep to elevated risks of cardiovascular disease, diabetes, depression and weakened immune function. The brain itself appears to clear toxic metabolic waste during sleep through a specialised network of channels known as the glymphatic system; insufficient sleep may therefore contribute to cognitive decline and neurodegenerative disease. Despite this evidence, sleep is routinely undervalued in modern societies. Workplace cultures often glorify long hours, schools start before adolescent biorhythms support full alertness, and digital devices keep users engaged late into the night. Public health authorities are beginning to respond with educational campaigns, but cultural change is slow. The economic costs of insufficient sleep — measured in lost productivity, traffic accidents and medical expenses — are estimated at hundreds of billions of dollars annually across developed economies.

96

According to the passage, chronic sleep deprivation is linked to risks of:

97

According to the passage, the glymphatic system:

98

The passage suggests that workplace cultures often:

99

According to the passage, the economic costs of insufficient sleep:

100

The central argument of the passage is that:










Score Card 00:00
Total
0
0% 0/0
+4 0 Right −1 0 Wrong 0%
00:00
Question 0 of 90
QA (SA)
0/60
0 0 0%
0/15
QA (MCQ)
0/120
0 0 0%
0/30
VA
0/180
0 0 0%
0/45